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Binomial & Poisson Distributions · Question 35 of 68

Question 35

MediumOriginal question

Assertion (A): No binomial distribution has mean 5 and variance 6.

Reason (R): The variance npqnpq is less than the mean npnp, because q<1q < 1.

Options for question 35

Show the answer and explanation
CorrectNot quiteAnswer A

Correct answer: A

Explanation

  1. Variance 6 with mean 5 would need q=65>1q = \frac{6}{5} > 1, which no probability can be. A is true.

  2. R is exactly that reason, so R explains A.

Concept
The variance is less than the mean
Typical time
90 s
Your time
—
The rule this testsMean and variance of a binomial distribution
Practise this chapter →

Ten questions from Binomial & Poisson Distributions, at your own pace.

Practise this chapter →

Ten questions from Binomial & Poisson Distributions, at your own pace.