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Perpetuity, Sinking Funds & Bonds · Question 49 of 63

Question 49

EasyOriginal question

A bond's face value of ₹1,000 will be repaid in 2 years. Buyers require 6% a year. What is the present value of that repayment alone? (Take 1(1.06)2=0.8900\frac{1}{(1.06)^{2}} = 0.8900.)

Options for question 49

Show the answer and explanation
CorrectNot quiteAnswer A

Correct answer: A

Explanation

  1. Discount the repayment back 2 years.

  2. 1,000×0.8900=8901{,}000 \times 0.8900 = 890 rupees.

Worth noting

₹943.40 discounts only one year; ₹1,123.60 grows the sum for two years instead of discounting it.

Concept
The present value of the face value
Typical time
60 s
Your time
—
The rule this testsValuing a bond
Practise this chapter →

Ten questions from Perpetuity, Sinking Funds & Bonds, at your own pace.

Practise this chapter →

Ten questions from Perpetuity, Sinking Funds & Bonds, at your own pace.