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Perpetuity, Sinking Funds & Bonds · Question 63 of 63

Question 63

HardOriginal question

A bond with face value ₹1,000 pays a 6% coupon yearly and is repaid in 2 years. Buyers require 8% a year. What is it worth? (Take 11.08=0.9259\frac{1}{1.08} = 0.9259 and 1(1.08)2=0.8573\frac{1}{(1.08)^{2}} = 0.8573.)

Options for question 63

Show the answer and explanation
CorrectNot quiteAnswer B

Correct answer: B

Explanation

  1. Year 1: ₹60; year 2: 60+1,000=1,06060 + 1{,}000 = 1{,}060.

  2. Value =60×0.9259+1,060×0.8573=55.554+908.738=964.292= 60 \times 0.9259 + 1{,}060 \times 0.8573 = 55.554 + 908.738 = 964.292, about ₹964.29, a discount.

Worth noting

₹973.03 discounts the face value but adds the ₹120 of coupons at full value.

Concept
Valuing a bond by present values
Typical time
120 s
Your time
—
The rule this testsValuing a bond
Practise this chapter →

Ten questions from Perpetuity, Sinking Funds & Bonds, at your own pace.

Practise this chapter →

Ten questions from Perpetuity, Sinking Funds & Bonds, at your own pace.