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Perpetuity, Sinking Funds & Bonds · Question 62 of 63

Question 62

HardOriginal question

A ₹1,000 bond pays a 7% coupon yearly and is repaid in 4 years. Buyers require 6%. What is it worth? (Take the present value of ₹1 a year for 4 years at 6% as 3.4651, and 1(1.06)4=0.7921\frac{1}{(1.06)^{4}} = 0.7921.)

Options for question 62

Show the answer and explanation
CorrectNot quiteAnswer C

Correct answer: C

Explanation

  1. Coupons: 70×3.4651=242.55770 \times 3.4651 = 242.557. Face value: 1,000×0.7921=792.101{,}000 \times 0.7921 = 792.10.

  2. Value ≈1,034.66\approx 1{,}034.66 rupees, a premium, since 7% beats 6%.

Worth noting

₹1,072.10 discounts the coupons but takes the face value undiscounted, at ₹1,000.

Concept
Valuing a bond with an annuity factor
Typical time
120 s
Your time
—
The rule this testsValuing a bond
Practise this chapter →

Ten questions from Perpetuity, Sinking Funds & Bonds, at your own pace.

Practise this chapter →

Ten questions from Perpetuity, Sinking Funds & Bonds, at your own pace.