Question 63
MediumOriginal questionAssertion (A): , so the line encloses no area with the -axis between and .
Reason (R): A definite integral counts area below the -axis as negative.
Show the answer and explanation
CorrectNot quiteAnswer D
Correct answer: D
Explanation
The two triangles each have area , so the region's area is 1, not 0: A is false.
R is true, and it is exactly why the integral is 0 while the area is not.
- Concept
- Integral and area are not the same
- Typical timeTypical
- 90 s
- Your timeYours
- —
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